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Foundations in Microbiology 9th Edition Talaro Chess Test Bank

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Foundations in Microbiology 9th Edition Talaro Chess Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0073522609

ISBN-10: 0073522600

 

Description

Foundations in Microbiology 9th Edition Talaro Chess Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0073522609

ISBN-10: 0073522600

 

 

 

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Free Nursing Test Questions:

ch15
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The bone marrow is where

 

A.  immune responses to antigen occur.
B.  blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
C.  antigen is filtered from the blood.
D.  antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
E.  T lymphocytes complete maturation.

2. The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called

 

A.  antibodies.
B.  sensitized T cells.
C.  activated macrophages.
D.  plasma cells.
E.  Bursa cells.

3. Helper T cells

 

A.  secrete antibodies.
B.  function in allergic reactions.
C.  directly destroy target cells.
D.  suppress immune reactions.
E.  activate B cells and other T cells.

4. Plasma cells

 

A.  secrete antibodies.
B.  function in allergic reactions.
C.  directly destroy target cells.
D.  suppress immune reactions.
E.  activate B cells and other T cells.

5. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions

 

A.  are the result of genetic expression.
B.  function in recognition of self molecules.
C.  receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.
D.  aid in cellular development.
E.  all of the choices are correct.

6. The major histocompatability complex is

 

A.  a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system.
B.  a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.
C.  also known as the complement system.
D.  located in the thymus gland.
E.  all of the choices are correct.

7. Class II MHC genes code for

 

A.  certain secreted complement components.
B.  self receptors recognized by natural killer cells.
C.  all HLA antigens.
D.  receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
E.  all of the choices are correct.

8. Class I MHC genes code for

 

A.  certain secreted complement components.
B.  markers that display unique characteristics of self.
C.  all HLA antigens.
D.  receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
E.  all of the choices are correct.

9. Lymphocytes:

 

A.  possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
B.  have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens.
C.  gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
D.  develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity.
E.  all of the choices are correct.

10. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except

 

A.  two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
B.  two identical light polypeptide chains.
C.  disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
D.  four antigen binding sites.
E.  a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.

11. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of
B lymphocytes to another is the

 

A.  variable region.
B.  joining region.
C.  constant region.
D.  light region.
E.  hinge region.

12. Lymphocyte maturation involves

 

A.  hormonal signals that initiate development.
B.  B cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
C.  T cells maturing in the thymus.
D.  release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
E.  all of the choices are correct.

13. Properties of effective antigens include all the following, except

 

A.  foreign to the immune system.
B.  molecular complexity.
C.  large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000.
D.  large polymers made up of repeating subunits.
E.  cells or large, complex molecules.

14. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/
an

 

A.  epitope.
B.  hapten.
C.  antigen binding site.
D.  variable region.
E.  None of the choices are correct.

15. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed

 

A.  antigenic determinant.
B.  hapten.
C.  antigen binding site.
D.  variable region.
E.  None of the choices are correct.

16. Superantigens are

 

A.  body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
B.  cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
C.  bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
D.  those that evoke allergic reactions.
E.  None of the choices are correct.

17. Antigen presenting cells

 

A.  include dendritic cells.
B.  include macrophages.
C.  engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
D.  hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

18. T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires

 

A.  typically a protein antigen.
B.  binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell.
C.  binding of T cell to a site on the antigen.
D.  interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

19. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?

 

A.  It determines the antibody’s distribution in the body.
B.  It forms the antigen binding sites.
C.  It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells.
D.  It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement.
E.  It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.

20. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby
disrupting their activity?

 

A.  Neutralization
B.  Opsonization
C.  Complement fixation
D.  Agglutination
E.  Anamnestic response

21. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?

 

A.  Neutralization
B.  Opsonization
C.  Complement fixation
D.  Agglutination
E.  Anamnestic response

22. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?

 

A.  Neutralization
B.  Opsonization
C.  Complement fixation
D.  Agglutination
E.  Anamnestic response

23. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune
system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

 

A.  Neutralization
B.  Opsonization
C.  Complement fixation
D.  Agglutination
E.  Anamnestic response

24. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body
secretions is

 

A.  IgA.
B.  IgD.
C.  IgE.
D.  IgG.

E.  IgM.

25. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is

 

A.  IgA.
B.  IgD.
C.  IgE.
D.  IgG.
E.  IgM.

26. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is

 

A.  IgA.
B.  IgD.
C.  IgE.
D.  IgG
E.  IgM.

27. All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except

 

A.  it has 10 antigen binding sites.
B.  it contains a central J chain.
C.  it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
D.  it can fix complement.
E.  it is a dimer.

28. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?

 

A.  IgM only
B.  IgG only
C.  IgD only
D.  IgM and IgG
E.  IgE and IgA

29. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are

 

A.  IgM only.
B.  IgG only.
C.  IgD only.
D.  IgM and IgG.
E.  IgE and IgA.

30. When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly

 

A.  IgM.
B.  IgA.
C.  IgD.
D.  IgE.
E.  IgG.

31. The most significant cells in graft rejection are

 

A.  helper T cells.
B.  suppressor T cells.
C.  cytotoxic T cells.
D.  B cells.
E.  natural killer (NK) cells.

32. Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

 

A.  helper T cells
B.  suppressor T cells
C.  cytotoxic T cells
D.  delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E.  natural killer (NK) cells

33. Monoclonal antibodies

 

A.  originate from a single B cell clone.
B.  have a single specificity for antigen.
C.  are secreted by hybridomas.
D.  are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

34. Cytotoxic T cells

 

A.  stimulate B cell proliferation.
B.  lack specificity for a target cell.
C.  secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
D.  secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

35. An example of artificial passive immunity would be

 

A.  chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B.  chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C.  giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D.  a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E.  None of the choices are correct.

36. An example of natural passive immunity would be

 

A.  chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B.  chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C.  giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D.  a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E.  None of the choices are correct.

37. An example of artificial active immunity would be

 

A.  chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B.  chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C.  giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D.  a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E.  None of the choices are correct.

38. Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?

 

A.  Cytotoxic T cells
B.  Helper T cells
C.  B cells
D.  Plasma cells
E.  Suppressor T cells

39. In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is

 

A.  IgD.
B.  IgE.
C.  IgG.
D.  IgM.
E.  IgA.

40. In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is

 

A.  IgD.
B.  IgE.
C.  IgG.
D.  IgM.
E.  IgA.

41. All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except

 

A.  a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response.
B.  a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response.
C.  a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response.
D.  it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
E.  it is also known as the anamnestic response.

42. Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and
genitourinary pathogens?

 

A.  IgD
B.  IgE
C.  IgG
D.  IgM
E.  IgA

43. The process of clonal deletion is designed to

 

A.  destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
B.  slow down the primary immune response to an antigen.
C.  slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen.
D. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient.
E.  slow down the immune system in the elderly.

44. Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for

 

A.  asthma.
B.  Chron’s disease.
C.  breast cancer.
D.  respiratory syncytial virus.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

45. Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except

 

A.  diphtheria.
B.  botulism.
C.  snake bites.
D.  chickenpox.
E.  spider bites.

46. Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can’t remember the last time he had a tetanus
shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?

 

A.  Natural active immunity
B.  Artificial passive immunity
C.  Natural passive immunity
D.  Artificial active immunity
E.  None of the choices will help him.

47. Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine
immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this?

 

A.  Natural active immunity
B.  Artificial passive immunity
C.  Natural passive immunity
D.  Artificial active immunity
E.  None of the choices will protect him.

48. Edward Jenner’s work involved

 

A.  inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B.  development of passive immunotherapy.
C.  development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D.

immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic
one.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

49. Immunotherapy is the

 

A.  use of antitoxins.
B.  use of immune serum globulin.
C.  conferring of passive immunity.
D.  administering of preformed antibodies.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

50. High titers of specific antibodies are components of

 

A.  specific immune globulin (SIG).
B.  gamma globulin.
C.  immune serum globulin (ISG).
D.  attenuated vaccines.
E.  toxoids.

51. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by

 

A.  removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
B.  treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.
C.  passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture.
D.  long-term subculturing of the microbe.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

52. Live, attenuated vaccines

 

A.  include the Sabin polio vaccine.
B.  include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
C.  contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
D.  require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

53. Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines

 

A.  contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B.  are always genetically engineered.
C.  contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D.  confer passive immunity.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

54. Toxoids

 

A.  contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B.  are always genetically engineered.
C.  contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D.  confer passive immunity.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

55. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make

 

A.  Adjuvant.
B.  Booster.
C.  Antibodies to toxin.
D.  Gamma globulin.
E.  “Trojan horse” recombinant vaccine.

56. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen
retention at the injection site?

 

A.  Adjuvant
B.  Booster
C.  Antibodies to toxin
D.  Gamma globulin
E.  “Trojan horse” recombinant vaccine

57. Variolation involved using

 

A.  dried, ground smallpox scabs.
B.  a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus.
C.  preparations of human cowpox lesions.
D.  antibodies to the smallpox virus.
E.  None of the choices are correct.

58. Antitoxins

 

A.  contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
B.  use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
C.  contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin.
D.  include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus.
E.  contain attenuated organisms.

59. The DTaP immunization

 

A.  contains diphtheria toxoid.
B.  is administered in childhood.
C.  contains tetanus toxoid.
D.  contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material.
E.  All of the choices are correct.

60. Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients?

 

A.  Killed, inactivated vaccines
B.  Attenuated vaccines
C.  Toxoids
D.  Immune serums
E.  Subunit vaccines

61. Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood
vaccinations?

 

A.  Autism
B.  Diabetes
C.  Asthma
D.  All of the choices are correct.
E.  None of the choices are correct.

62. Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except

 

A.  Malaria.
B.  Botulism.
C.  Cholera.
D.  Yellow fever.
E.  Rabies.

63. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

 

A.  they require smaller doses.
B.  they require fewer boosters.
C.  they confer longer lasting protection.
D.  they can be transmitted to other people.
E.  they produce infection but not disease.

64. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

 

A.  they confer longer lasting protection.
B.  they produce infection but not disease.
C.  they can mutate back to a virulent strain.
D.  they require fewer boosters.
E.  they require smaller doses.

65. All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except

 

A.  it should have a relatively long shelf life.
B.  it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.
C.  it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen.
D.  it should not require numerous boosters.
E.  it should be easy to administer.

66. Which cells’ direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunity?

 

A.  T-cells
B.  B-cells
C.  Bacterial cells
D.  Viral components
E.  Neutrophils

67. Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response?

 

A. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B cells.
B. Lymphocyte development, challenge of B cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens.
C.  Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production.
D.  Antibody production, lymphocyte production, B cell challenge, presentation of antigens.
E.  Presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production, lymphocyte development.

68. Which kind of T cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy bacteria, viral infected cells, and
cancer cells?

 

A.  TC
B.  TH
C.  CD4
D.  MHC

69. Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.

 

True    False

70. Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system
to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them.

 

True    False

71. Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.

 

True    False

72. Alloantigens are the basis for an individual’s blood group and MHC profile.

 

True    False

73. Activation of B cells occurs when antigen bonds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors.

 

True    False

74. After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory
cells.

 

True    False

75. A disadvantage of using an attenuated live microbe in a vaccine is that it can conceivably mutate back to
a virulent strain.

 

True    False

76. Autoantigens are types of self-antigens that initiate an autoimmune response that can cause damage to
host tissue.

 

True    False

77. The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment.

 

True    False

78. The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies.

 

True    False

79. Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen.

 

True    False

80. Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.

 

True    False

81. Each genetically distinct group of lymphocytes that possesses the same specificity is called a _____.

 

________________________________________

82. Certain body sites contain sequestered molecules, called _____ that escaped assessment during
development of immune tolerance and are mistaken as foreign.

 

________________________________________

83. Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called _____.

 

________________________________________

84. _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.

 

________________________________________

85. A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal _____ cell.

 

________________________________________

86. Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain
that folds into a groove for one antigenic determinant.

 

________________________________________

87. During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages secrete the cytokine, _____, that activates T
helper cells.

 

________________________________________

88. Discuss, in detail, all the genetic and cellular events encompassed in the clonal selection theory of
lymphocyte development.

 

 

 

 

89. Describe the characteristics that distinguish the following: a) antigen, b) hapten, c) antigenic determinant,
d) alloantigen, e) heterophilic antigen, and f) autoantigen.

 

 

 

 

90. Discuss the various ways by which antibodies interact with antigen and facilitate antigen inhibition or
destruction.

 

 

 

 

91. Describe the major histocompatability complex with regard to its: a) location, b) composition, c)
relationship to specific cell markers, and d) role in regulation of immune reactions.

 

 

 

 

 

ch15 Key

1. B

2. D

3. E

4. A

5. E

6. B

7. D

8. B

9. E

10. D

11. A

12. E

13. D

14. A

15. B

16. C

17. E

18. E

19. B

20. A

21. D

22. B

23. E

24. A

25. D

26. C

27. E

28. D

29. C

30. E

31. C

32. E

33. E

34. C

35. C

36. D

37. B

38. B

39. D

40. C

41. D

42. E

43. A

44. C

45. D

46. B

47. D

48. D

49. E

50. A

51. B

52. E

53. C

54. A

55. E

56. A

57. A

58. A

59. E

60. B

61. E

62. A

63. D

64. C

65. B

66. A

67. C

68. A

69. TRUE

70. TRUE

71. FALSE

72. TRUE

73. TRUE

74. FALSE

75. TRUE

76. TRUE

77. TRUE

78. FALSE

79. FALSE

80. TRUE

81. Clone

82. Autoantigens

83. Allergens

84. IgG

85. Plasma

86. Fab

87. Interleukin-1

88.

89.

90.

91.

ch15 Summary

Category
# of Questions
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same process
es as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
13
ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resista
nce).
1
ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.
1
ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral
or detrimental ways.
9
ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.
2
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function
33
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow
1
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems
91
ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms
2
Learning Outcome: 15.01 Summarize the general features of adaptive, acquired immunity.
3
Learning Outcome: 15.02 Define immunocompetence, antigens, specificity, and memory as they relate to the immune system.
4
Learning Outcome: 15.03 Outline the overall phases in a specific immune response.
8
Learning Outcome: 15.04 Explain the functions and types fo immune receptors, including where and how they develop.
5
Learning Outcome: 15.05 Describe the major events in the origin of diversity in the immune system and features of the clonal selec
tion theory.
9
Learning Outcome: 15.06 Describe the development of antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
1
Learning Outcome: 15.07 Discuss the events in B-cell and T-cell maturation.
8
Learning Outcome: 15.08 Explain the characteristics of antigens, the property of antigenicity, and epitopes.
4
Learning Outcome: 15.09 Discuss the main categories of antigens, based on function.
11
Learning Outcome: 15.10 Describe the cooperative interactions between antigen-presenting cells, T cells, and B cells.
3
Learning Outcome: 15.11 Discuss the actions of interleukins in the early reactions of recognition and activation.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.12 List and analyze the stages in activation of B lymphocytes, clonal expansion, and antibody formation.
7
Learning Outcome: 15.13 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.
17
Learning Outcome: 15.14 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions.
21
Learning Outcome: 15.15 Analyze the primary and secondary responses to antigens and immunogens, including the importance of
the anamnestic response and boosters.
5
Learning Outcome: 15.16 Describe the main activities of cell-mediated immunities.
5
Learning Outcome: 15.17 Analyze the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors, and how they are activated.
1
Learning Outcome: 15.18 Describe the primary functions of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells.
7
Learning Outcome: 15.19 Explain the concepts of natural killer cells and superantigens.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.20 Outline the major categories of adaptive immunity.
3
Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artificial immunities and between active and passive immunities.
4
Learning Outcome: 15.22 Expand on the four combinations of the defining categories, using examples.
2
Learning Outcome: 15.23 Explain the purposes of immunotherapy and immunization.
6
Learning Outcome: 15.24 Describe the sources and uses of artificial passive immunization and artificial immunization or vaccinati
on.
4
Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines.
10
Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples.
15
Learning Outcome: 15.27 Describe the medical guidelines for vaccination, its side effects, and how it relates to herd immunity.
8
Talaro – Chapter 15
91
Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense
58
Topic: Antigens and Antibodies
41
Topic: Cell-Mediated Response
14
Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities
6
Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)
37
Topic: Immunization
25
Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation
11

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