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Maternity Nursing Care 2nd Edition Littleton-Gibbs Engebretson Test Bank

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Maternity Nursing Care 2nd Edition Littleton-Gibbs Engebretson Test Bank

ISBN:1111543119

ISBN-13:9781111543112

 

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Maternity Nursing Care 2nd Edition Littleton-Gibbs Engebretson Test Bank

ISBN:1111543119

ISBN-13:9781111543112

 

 

 

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Free Nursing Test Questions:

Chapter 8: Genetics and Genetic Counseling

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which screening test to detect chromosomal anomalies would a nurse schedule a client for at 16 weeks’ gestation?
a. Amniocentesis c. Fasting glucose
b. Chorionic villi sampling d. Ultrasound

 

 

ANS:  A

Midtrimester amniocentesis is commonly performed between the 14th and 16th weeks of gestation to detect fetal chromosomal anomalies. Chorionic villi sampling is performed usually between the 9th and 12th weeks of gestation. Fasting glucose is used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Ultrasound is usually performed in early pregnancy.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Amniocentesis

 

  1. Which factor contributes the most to an increased risk for chromosomal anomalies?
a. Maternal or paternal age
b. Maternal or paternal occupation
c. Environmental exposure to teratogens
d. Seeking prenatal care late

 

 

ANS:  A

Maternal or paternal age is one of the most common causes of chromosomal anomalies. Maternal or paternal occupation is not associated with chromosomal anomalies. While environmental exposure to teratogens is associated with congenital anomalies including fetal demise, this is not a common factor associated with chromosomal anomalies. Lack of prenatal care can jeopardize both the fetus and the mother, but it is not associated with chromosomal anomalies.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Oogenesis

 

  1. A client asks what causes trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). Which explanation by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. “A mutation occurs on the 21st chromosome, usually as a result of X-rays received during early pregnancy.”
b. “Down syndrome is caused by an inherited gene located on the 21st chromosome.”
c. “During a stage of division when either the egg or the sperm is made, the 21st chromosome may not split properly.”
d. “Possibly as a result of a virus interfering with chromosome division, the egg is formed with only 21 chromosomes.”

 

 

ANS:  B

Trisomy 21(Down syndrome) is caused by an inherited gene located on the 21st chromosome. It is the result of non-disjunction of maternal chromosome number 21 during meiosis. It is the most common genetic cause of severe learning disabilities in children and a major cause of mental retardation. X-ray exposure and viral interference are not associated with chromosomal defects.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Application    REF:   Trisomy 21

 

  1. During a health history interview, a client reveals that her sister has cystic fibrosis and wants to know what chance she has of having a child with the disease. On which statement concerning autosomal recessive disorders such as cystic fibrosis does the nurse base the response?
a. If both parents have siblings who have the disease, there is a 25 percent chance of a child inheriting the disease.
b. If it is determined that she and her partner are carriers of the disease, there is a 1 in 4 chance each child could have cystic fibrosis.
c. The only way to determine the hereditary risk is by a thorough examination of each parent’s family tree.
d. No test can tell whether she or her partner are carriers of the disease.

 

 

ANS:  B

If it is determined that she and her partner are carriers of the disease, there is a 1 in 4 chance each child could have cystic fibrosis.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension

REF:   Vertical Transmission of Recessive Genes

 

  1. The nurse plans to schedule a client for chorionic villi sampling. Which time would be most appropriate?
a. 7th week c. 16th week
b. 10th week d. 20th week

 

 

ANS:  B

The appropriate timing for chorionic villi sampling is between the 9th and 12th weeks of pregnancy. Nuchal translucency or intravaginal ultrasonography occurs during the 7th week. Midtrimester amniocentesis occurs between the 14th and 16th weeks.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension

REF:   Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)

 

  1. A client asks why a specimen taken from chorionic villi can give information about the baby. The nurse correctly explains:
a. “Antibodies produced in response to infection and filtered out by the placenta may be identified through this procedure.”
b. “Cells that are shed by the baby are eliminated through the chorionic villi.”
c. “Specific proteins are produced by the chorionic villi that can signal problems.”
d. “The chromosomes taken from the chorionic villi are the same as the baby’s chromosomes.”

 

 

ANS:  D

Chorionic villi sampling can provide chromosomal information about the fetus.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Application    REF:   Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)

 

  1. Which disorder requires only one parent to carry an abnormal gene?
a. Sickle cell anemia c. Hemophilia
b. Cystic fibrosis d. Tay-Sachs disease

 

 

ANS:  C

Hemophilia is X-linkedRemember, only one parent (the mother) is the carrier. Sickle cell anemia, cystic fibrosis, and Tay-Sachs disease require both parents to be equally contributive, because it is autosomal recessive.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Single-Gene Disorders

 

  1. Which statement is true regarding X-linked dominant disorders?
a. Women are affected more than men.
b. Affected males do not transmit the disorder to their sons.
c. Sons of affected males will have the disorder.
d. Affected males have a 50 percent chance of transmission to their sons.

 

 

ANS:  B

Mothers are the carriers of X-linked disorders and transmit the disorders to the male children. Males are most affected in X-linked disorders.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension

REF:   Box 8-1: Characteristics of Dominant Inheritance

 

  1. A carrier state does not exist for which pattern?
a. Autosomal dominant c. X-linked recessive
b. Autosomal recessive d. Multifactorial inheritance

 

 

ANS:  A

Autosomal dominant means that a single dose of the mutant allele is sufficient to cause the phenotype to express, and a carrier state does not exist.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Box 8-1: Characteristics of Dominant Inheritance

 

  1. Which disorder will result in mental retardation if not diagnosed and treated from birth?
a. Cystic fibrosis c. Phenylketonuria
b. Sickle cell anemia d. Tay-Sachs disease

 

 

ANS:  C

Phenylketonuria will result in mental retardation if not diagnosed and treated from birth. Most states require testing for PKU in the neonate. If the disease is present, treatment begins at birth and lasts throughout life. Cystic fibrosis affects the exocrine glands and is not usually diagnosed until infancy. Tay-Sachs disease is not usually diagnosed until the infant is 6 months old.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Phenylketonuria

 

  1. Which ethnic group is at greatest risk for developing sickle cell anemia?
a. African Americans c. Asians
b. Caucasians d. Hispanics

 

 

ANS:  A

Sickle cell disease occurs predominantly in Blacks and Mediterranean people and is rarely seen in Caucasians, Asians, or Hispanics.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Sickle Cell Disease

 

  1. Which ethnic group is most at risk for cystic fibrosis?
a. African Americans c. Asians
b. Caucasians d. Hispanics

 

 

ANS:  B

Caucasians are most at risk for cystic fibrosis.  The disease is not common in African Americans, Asians, or Hispanics.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Cystic Fibrosis

 

  1. A client’s history reveals several males with unexplained mental retardation. Which disorder should the client be evaluated for?
a. Hemophilia c. Tay-Sachs disease
b. Fragile X d. Down syndrome

 

 

ANS:  B

The client should be tested for fragile X syndrome if the history reveals that several males in the family were diagnosed with unexplained mental retardation.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Fragile X Syndrome

 

  1. Which maternal laboratory test needs to be addressed in a client having an amniocentesis?
a. Blood type c. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
b. Rh factor d. Rubella titer

 

 

ANS:  B

Rh factor needs to be addressed because one complication of amniocentesis is the risk to the mother of immunological cross-reactions. Rubella titer should be done prior to pregnancy.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Amniocentesis

 

  1. A client has sickle cell trait. What is the next step for evaluating the risk of the fetus inheriting this disease?
a. Take an ultrasound.
b. Take an amniocentesis.
c. Determine the sickle cell status of the baby’s father.
d. Obtain a pedigree of the family for inherited disorders.

 

 

ANS:  C

Sickle cell disease is an autosomal recessive disorder requiring both parents to contribute to the outcome. An ultrasound will not diagnose sickle cell disease in the fetus. Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure, but it is not appropriate for diagnosing sickle cell disease.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension

REF:   Vertical Transmission of Dominant Genes

 

  1. The chromosomal structure of human beings consists of how many chromosomes, pairs of autosomes, and pairs of sex chromosomes?
a. 46, 21, 2 c. 46, 22, 1
b. 42, 20, 1 d. 40, 18, 2

 

 

ANS:  C

Normal chromosomal structure consists of 46 chromosomes, 22 pairs of autosomes, and one pair of sex chromosomes.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Distribution of Chromosomes During Cell Division

 

  1. During spermatogenesis, testosterone is produced by the
a. spermatogenic cells c. Leydig cells
b. seminal vesicles d. germ cells

 

 

ANS:  C

At puberty, testicular endocrine cells, called Leydig cells, or interstitial cells, increase in number and begin to produce testosterone, which initiates spermatogenesis. Seminal vesicles secrete a thick viscous fluid that forms a part of semen.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Spermatogenesis

 

  1. Which statement about oogenesis and spermatogenesis is correct?
a. Each spermatogonium will produce four mature gametes.
b. Oogenesis begins at the onset of puberty.
c. During oogenesis, two viable gametes are produced.
d. Spermatogenesis continues until the age of 65.

 

 

ANS:  A

Unlike with oogenesis that produces only one viable gamete, each spermatogonium will produce four mature gametes. Oogenesis begins during prenatal development. During oogenesis only one viable gamete is produced. Spermatogenesis continues throughout the lifetime, but diminishes with age.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Figure 8-5: Spermatogenesis

 

  1. In a heterozygotic individual, what genetic expression can be expected?
a. Carries normal alleles and displays a normal phenotype
b. Carries one mutant allele and may exhibit an affected phenotype
c. Carries two mutant alleles and has no clinical manifestations
d. Carries normal alleles and exhibits mild clinical manifestations

 

 

ANS:  B

In a heterozygotic individual, one mutant allele and may exhibit an affected phenotype. The homozygotic person with no mutations carries normal alleles and displays a normal phenotype.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension

REF:   Dominant Gene Inheritance Pattern

 

  1. What are the chances of an individual who is homozygous for a mutant allele of a dominant gene to pass the abnormality to offspring?
a. 25 percent c. 75 percent
b. 100 percent d. 50 percent

 

 

ANS:  B

Because of the homozygous characteristic for a mutant allele of a dominant gene, there is a certainty of passing the abnormality to 100 percent of the offspring.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension

REF:   Vertical Transmission of Dominant Genes

 

  1. Which is a characteristic of an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern?
a. The phenotype usually skips a generation.
b. Males are affected more than females.
c. Carrier states may be present in individuals with one mutant allele.
d. Children of an affected parent have a 50 percent chance of inheriting the mutant allele.

 

 

ANS:  D

Children of a parent affected by an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern have a 50 percent change of inheriting the mutant allele and being affected.The phenotype of autosomal dominant inheritance pattern appears in consecutive generations. One mutant allele in an individual is an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, not a carrier state.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Vertical Transmission of Dominant Genes

 

  1. Individuals with a recessive gene inheritance pattern should be advised that
a. if one parent is a carrier, there is a 50 percent chance of having affected children
b. prenatal screening for recessive gene disorders is rarely performed
c. the disease is passed from generation to generation
d. if both parents are carriers, there is a 25 percent chance of having affected offspring

 

 

ANS:  D

If both parents are carriers, there is a 25 percent chance of having affected offspring. A recessive disease can only be phenotypically expressed when two copies of the mutant allele are present; therefore, both parents must equally contribute to this outcome. Because there is a risk of having an affected offspring, prenatal screening may be performed. A disease passed from generation to generation occurs because of autosomal dominant inheritance.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Vertical Transmission of Recessive Genes

 

  1. Which genetic condition is considered both multifactorial and polygenic?
a. Coronary artery disease c. Tay-Sachs disease
b. Sickle cell disease d. Down syndrome

 

 

ANS:  A

Even though there is an undeniable genetic predisposition, CAD is heavily influenced by environmental factors including lifestyle, dietary habits, and stress.  Sickle cell disease and Tay-Sachs disease are autosomal recessive diseases. Down syndrome represents a chromosomal defect.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension

REF:   Polygenic and Multifactorial Inheritance

 

  1. Achondroplasia is characterized by
a. hyperelasticity of the skin, hyperflexible joints, and poor wound healing
b. shortened limbs and a normal-length torso
c. skeletal abnormalities including arachnodactyly and scoliosis
d. multiple soft tumors and café-au-lait spots

 

 

ANS:  B

As the most common form of dwarfism, shortened limbs and a normal-length torso are characteristic of achondroplasia. Hyperelasticity of the skin, hyperflexible joints, and poor wound healing are characteristics of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Skeletal abnormalities including arachnodactyly and scoliosis are  characteristic of Marfan syndrome. Multiple soft tumors and café-au-lait spots are characteristic of neurofibromatosis.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Achondroplasia

 

  1. The pregnant client with Marfan syndrome is at a high risk of
a. developing respiratory difficulties c. aortic aneurysm
b. cephalopelvic disproportion d. progressive renal insufficiency

 

 

ANS:  C

Aortic aneurysms are among the cardiovascular anomalies associated with Marfan syndrome. Marfan syndrome is characterized by ocular, skeletal, and cardiovascular alterations. Respiratory difficulties are more characteristic of cystic fibrosis. Cephalopelvic disproportion is characteristic of osteogenesis imperfecta type 1. Progressive renal insufficiency is not associated with Marfan syndrome.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Marfan Syndrome

 

  1. What genetic screening test should the nurse anticipate when caring for a newborn?
a. Sickle cell c. Tay-Sachs
b. Phenylketonuria d. G6PD deficiency

 

 

ANS:  B

Neonatal testing for early detection of PKU is performed as a legal obligation in all 50 states. Sickle cell testing would only be done if the child is suspected of being affected by the disease. Genetic screening for Tay-Sachs disease occurs prenatally. G6PD deficiency is a common, self-limiting deficiency that is not a routine neonatal screened disease.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Phenylketonuria

 

  1. What features are characteristic of Down syndrome?
a. Brachycephaly, low-set ears, epicanthal folds
b. Microcephaly, polydactyly, hypoplasia of the pelvis
c. “Rocker-bottom” feet, flexion deformities, adducted hips
d. Elongated lower limbs, microphthalmia, malformed ears

 

 

ANS:  A

Brachycephaly, low-set ears, epicanthal folds are characteristics of Down syndrome (trisomy 21). Microcephaly, polydactyly, hypoplasia of the pelvis,  elongated lower limbs, microphthalmia, malformed ears are characteristics of trisomy 13. “Rocker-bottom” feet, flexion deformities, adducted hips are characteristics of trisomy 18.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Trisomy 21

 

  1. Which is an indication for amniocentesis?
a. History of preterm labor c. Maternal age 37
b. Maternal blood type A negative d. Paternal age 40

 

 

ANS:  C

Maternal age over 35 is an indication for amniocentesis. History of preterm labor would be a contraindication for amniocentesis. Maternal blood type A negative indicates a risk of Rh incomparability, which is not an indication for amniocentesis. Paternal age of 40 is not considered a risk factor for any conditions for which amniocentesis is performed.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Amniocentesis

 

  1. The most common cause of trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is
a. advanced maternal age
b. family history of Down syndrome
c. exposure to teratogens
d. maternal ingestion of anticonvulsant medications

 

 

ANS:  A

Advanced maternal age is the most common factor associated with Down syndrome.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Trisomy 21

 

  1. A nurse preceptor asks a group of nursing students which genetic disease is an umbrella term for a group (with nine subtypes) of disorders of connective tissue that result in hyperelasticity of skin, hyperflexible joints, vascular fragility, and poor wound healing. Which response by the students would indicate to the preceptor that they understand?
a. Polycystic kidney disease c. Marfan syndrome
b. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) d. Von Recklinghausen disease

 

 

ANS:  B

The preceptor would know that the students understand if they reply Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS).  Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) is an umbrella term for a group (with nine subtypes) of disorders of connective tissue that result in hyperelasticity of skin, hyperflexible joints, vascular fragility, and poor wound healing. Polycystic kidney disease is a disorder that causes cysts in the kidneys, liver, pancreas, and spleen. Marfan syndrome is another disorder of connective tissue, involving a triad of ocular, skeletal, and cardiovascular alterations. Von Recklinghausen disease is the development of multiple soft tumors of peripheral nerves, or neurofibromas, and an abnormal skin pigmentation.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Analysis         REF:   Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)

 

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

 

  1. After you completed presenting a staff development program on genetic disorders, you review with the nurses those diseases which are autosomal dominant. Which disorder if included by one of the staff would indicate that further clarification is needed? (Select all that apply.)
a. Achondroplasia d. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
b. Cystic fibrosis e. Huntington disease
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy f. Phenylketonuria

 

 

ANS:  B, C, F

Further clarification is needed if the nurses include cystic fibrosis and phenylketonuria, which are autosomal recessive, or Duchenne muscular dystrophy which is X-linked recessive. Autosomal dominant disorders include achondroplasia, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Huntington disease, Marfan syndrome, neurofibromatosis type 1 and polycystic kidney disease.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Analysis         REF:   Table 8-1: Selected Single-Gene Disorders

 

  1. A woman has just delivered a newborn baby who has G6PD deficiency. You hypothesize that the infant is at risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Anemia d. Marfan syndrome
b. Phenylketonuria e. Kernicterus
c. Hyperbilirubinemia f. Personality disorder

 

 

ANS:  A, C, E

Infants who have G6PD deficiency are at risk for developing anemia, hyperbilirubinemia, and kernicterus.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Application    REF:   Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency

 

  1. Your assessment of a child age 5, who is believed to have Duchenne muscular dystrophy, would most likely reveal which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Muscle atrophy and contractures d. Delayed walking
b. Progressive muscle weakening e. Severe anemia
c. Mental retardation f. Inability to run

 

 

ANS:  A, B, D, F

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) results in progressive muscle weakening, atrophy, and contractures, beginning in early childhood. The age of onset is less than 5 years and the disease is characterized by delayed walking. A pseudo-hypertrophy of the calf (in which muscle is replaced by adipose tissue) may mask the disease to the inexperienced clinician. Affected children are usually unable to run.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Application    REF:   Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

 

  1. The purpose of genetic screening includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. To identify those individuals who should be discouraged from ever having children
b. To provide a reason for abortion of fetuses that may possibly be born with a congenital disease
c. To provide early recognition of a disease for which effective intervention and therapy exist, before symptoms occur
d. To provide identification of carriers of a genetic disease for the purpose of maximizing parenthood planning options
e. To reduce the burden of disease among children living in the United States
f. To obtain population data on frequency, spectrum, and natural history of a genetic disease

 

 

ANS:  C, D, F

The three main purposes for genetic screening are 1) to provide early recognition of a disease for which effective intervention and therapy exist, before symptoms occur, for example, PKU; 2) to provide identification of carriers of a genetic disease for the purpose of maximizing parenthood planning options, for example, Tay-Sachs disease; and 3) to obtain population data on frequency, spectrum, and natural history of a genetic disease, for example,

chromosomal abnormalities in newborns.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Genetic Screening

 

  1. Which of the following disorders are considered autosomal dominant? (Select all that apply.)
a. Achondroplasia d. Phenylketonuria
b. Cystic fibrosis e. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Marfan syndrome f. Sickle cell anemia

 

 

ANS:  A, C, E

Achondroplasia, Marfan syndrome, and osteogenesis imperfecta are autosomal dominant disorders.  Cystic fibrosis, phenylketonuria, and sickle cell anemia are autosomal recessive disorders.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Table 8-1: Selected Single-Gene Disorders

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The presence of an extra chromosome that is added to a given chromosome pair is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  trisomy

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance

 

  1. The normal number of chromosomes in a human cell is ____________________.

 

ANS:

46

23 pairs

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance

 

  1. Loss of chromosomal material is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  deletion

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Patterns of Chromosome Anomalies

 

  1. Misplacement of genetic material from one chromosome to another is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  translocation

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Patterns of Chromosome Anomalies

 

  1. Reduction division is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  meiosis

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Oogenesis and Spermatogenesis

 

  1. Meiosis results in ____________________ chromosomes in the sperm and egg.

 

ANS:

23

twenty-three

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension                               REF:   Oogenesis

 

  1. Synthesis of abnormal proteins with potential clinical consequences is caused by the alteration of a structural gene called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  mutation

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Gene Structure and Function

 

  1. The risk of having an affected child if both parents are carriers of an autosomal recessive disorder is ____________________ percent.

 

ANS:

25 percent

25%

25

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Vertical Transmission of Recessive Genes

 

  1. The risk of an affected child if one parent is heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disorder is ____________________ percent.

 

ANS:

50

fifty

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Vertical Transmission of Recessive Genes

 

  1. A person with identical alleles of a given gene is termed ____________________.

 

ANS:  homozygous

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension

REF:   Vertical Transmission of Dominant Genes

 

  1. A person who has two different alleles for a given gene is termed ____________________.

 

ANS:  heterozygous

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Comprehension

REF:   Vertical Transmission of Recessive Genes

 

  1. Hemophilia is an example of a(n) ______________________________ inheritance pattern.

 

ANS:  X-linked recessive

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Table 8-1: Selected Single-Gene Disorders

 

  1. Sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis are examples of ______________________________ inheritance patterns.

 

ANS:  autosomal recessive

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Knowledge    REF:   Table 8-1: Selected Single-Gene Disorders

 

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