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Microbiology A Systems Approach 3rd Edition Cowan Test Bank

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Microbiology A Systems Approach 3rd Edition Cowan Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0073522524

ISBN-10: 007352252X

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Microbiology A Systems Approach 3rd Edition Cowan Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0073522524

ISBN-10: 007352252X

 

 

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Chapter 016 Disorders in Immunity

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are

A. Type I only

 

B. Type I and Type IV

 

C. Type IV only

 

D. Type I, Type II, Type III

 

E. Type I, Type II, Type III and Type IV

 

2. Which is mismatched?

A. Food allergy – Type I hypersensitivity

 

B. Poison ivy dermatitis – Type IV hypersensitivity

 

C. Serum sickness – Type III hypersensitivity

 

D. Transfusion reaction – Type II hypersensitivity

 

E. Hay fever – Type IV hypersensitivity

 

3. Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an

A. Autoimmune disease

 

B. Immunodeficiency

 

C. Hypersensitivity

 

D. Transfusion reaction

 

E. Desensitization

 

4. The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is

A. Humoralpathology

 

B. Hemopathology

 

C. Epidemiology

 

D. Immunopathology

 

E. Histopathology

 

5. Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category

A. Type I only

 

B. Type I and Type IV

 

C. Type IV only

 

D. Type I, Type II, Type III

 

E. Type I, Type II, Type III and Type IV

 

6. Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?

A. Ingestant

 

B. Inhalant

 

C. Injectant

 

D. Contactant

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

7. Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?

A. Ingestant

 

B. Inhalant

 

C. Injectant

 

D. Contactant

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

8. The initial encounter with an allergen is called the

A. Sensitizing dose

 

B. Provocative dose

 

C. Allergic dose

 

D. Hypersensitivity dose

 

E. Desensitizing dose

 

9. A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the

A. Sensitizing dose

 

B. Provocative dose

 

C. Allergic dose

 

D. Hypersensitivity dose

 

E. Desensitizing dose

 

10. What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time?

A. Degranulation

 

B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

 

C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

 

D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle

 

E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

 

11. Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?

A. Degranulation

 

B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

 

C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

 

D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle

 

E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

 

12. Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?

A. Degranulation

 

B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

 

C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

 

D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle

 

E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

 

13. Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity?

A. Rhinitis

 

B. Rashes

 

C. Sneezing

 

D. Diarrhea

 

E. Contact dermatitis

 

14. Histamine causes all the following except

A. Increased sensitivity to pain

 

B. Constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine

 

C. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle

 

D. Wheal and flare reaction in skin

 

E. Pruritis and headache

 

15. The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is

A. Prostaglandin

 

B. Histamine

 

C. Leukotriene

 

D. Serotonin

 

E. Platelet-activating factor

 

16. Which type(s) of hypersensitivities is IgG is involved with?

A. Anaphylaxis

 

B. Antibody mediated

 

C. Immune complex mediated

 

D. Both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated

 

E. Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated

 

17. Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a/an _____ hypersensitivity.

A. T-cell mediated

 

B. Antibody mediated

 

C. Immune complex mediated

 

D. Immediate

 

E. Both T-cell mediated and antibody mediated

 

18. Allergies run in families because

A. Immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus

 

B. Immunoglobulins pass through breast milk

 

C. The variable region of antibodies is genetically determined

 

D. Relative production of IgE is inherited

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

19. A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered

A. Delayed

 

B. T-cell mediated

 

C. Atopic

 

D. Antibody-mediated

 

E. Systemic anaphylactic

 

20. A systemicRemember,metimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is

A. Delayed

 

B. T-cell mediated

 

C. Atopic

 

D. Antibody-mediated

 

E. Systemic anaphylactic

 

21. A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is

A. Atopic dermatitis

 

B. Eczema

 

C. Allergic rhinitis

 

D. Asthma

 

E. Anaphylaxis

 

22. All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell mediated allergy except

A. Drug allergy

 

B. Eczema

 

C. Anaphylaxis

 

D. Allergic asthma

 

E. Systemic lupus erythematosus

 

23. Epinephrine

A. Is an antihistamine

 

B. Reverses constriction of airways

 

C. Causes desensitization

 

D. Inhibits the activity of lymphocytes

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

24. Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing

A. Desensitization

 

B. Sensitization

 

C. Tissue matching

 

D. Degranulation

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

25. An antihistamine will

A. Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes

 

B. Bind to histamine receptors on target organs

 

C. Block synthesis of Leukotrienes

 

D. Relieve inflammatory symptoms

 

E. Reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles

 

26. Corticosteroids will

A. Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes

 

B. Bind to histamine receptors on target organs

 

C. Block synthesis of Leukotrienes

 

D. Relieve inflammatory symptoms

 

E. Reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles

 

27. All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity except

A. IgM

 

B. IgG

 

C. IgE

 

D. Complement

 

E. Foreign cells

 

28. Human blood types involve all the following except

A. MHC genes

 

B. ABO antigen markers

 

C. Inheritance of two of three possible alleles

 

D. Genetically determined glycoprotein markers

 

E. Genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors

 

29. The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh will have which of the following?

A. Anti A, anti Rh

 

B. Anti B, anti Rh

 

C. Anti A

 

D. Anti B

 

E. Anti A, anti B, anti Rh

 

30. A person with O type blood

A. Lacks all the alleles for ABO blood type

 

B. Lacks A and B antigens

 

C. Could not have the Rh factor

 

D. Is called a universal recipient

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

31. A person who has anti A and anti B serum antibodies will have blood type

A. A

 

B. B

 

C. AB

 

D. O

 

E. Rh

 

32. Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause

A. Recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs

 

B. Fever and anemia

 

C. Systemic shock and kidney failure

 

D. Massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

33. A female who is Rh

A. Inherited two dominant genes

 

B. Is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status

 

C. Is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn

 

D. Can never have an Rh+ baby

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

34. The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when

A. Maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh fetus

 

B. Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh mother

 

C. Maternal Rh cells enter an Rh+ fetus

 

D. Fetal Rh cells enter an Rh+ mother

 

E. Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother

 

35. Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor

A. All other Rh+ fetuses are at risk

 

B. She can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn

 

C. She can never again have a low risk pregnancy

 

D. Only future Rh fetuses are at risk

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

36. Which of the following is not true of Type III hypersensitivity?

A. Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues

 

B. Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies

 

C. Involves an immune complex reaction

 

D. The Arthus reaction is a local response

 

E. Serum sickness is a systemic response

 

37. Which of the following is not a major organ that can be a target of immune complex deposition?

A. Blood vessels and skin

 

B. Heart and lungs

 

C. Brain

 

D. Joints

 

E. Kidneys

 

38. Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in

A. Serum sickness

 

B. Delayed hypersensitivity

 

C. Anaphylaxis

 

D. Hemolytic disease of the newborn

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

39. Contact dermatitis involves

A. A sensitizing and provocative dose

 

B. Allergen entering the skin

 

C. T lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines

 

D. Itchy papules and blisters

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

40. What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes?

A. Host rejection of graft

 

B. Graft versus host disease

 

C. Formation of autoantibodies

 

D. Hypogammaglobulinemia

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

41. Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a/an

A. Isograft

 

B. Autograft

 

C. Allograft

 

D. Xenograft

 

E. Hypograft

 

42. What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient’s tissue?

A. Skin graft

 

B. Blood transfusion

 

C. Organ transplantation

 

D. Both skin graft and organ transplantation

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

43. Autoimmunity is typically due to

A. Transfusion reaction

 

B. IgE and mast cells

 

C. Autoantibodies and T cells

 

D. Graft rejection

 

E. A deficiency in T-cell development

 

44. Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases except

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

 

B. Myasthenia gravis

 

C. Graves’ disease

 

D. Tuberculin reaction

 

E. Multiple sclerosis

 

45. Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus

 

B. Graves disease

 

C. Type I diabetes

 

D. Metastatic cancer

 

E. Rheumatic fever

 

46. Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against

A. Myelin sheath cells of the nervous system

 

B. Acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle

 

C. Acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle

 

D. Sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane

 

E. Cells in thyroid follicles

 

47. In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack

A. Myelin sheath cells of the nervous system

 

B. Acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle

 

C. Acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle

 

D. Sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane

 

E. Cells in thyroid follicles?

 

48. Which of the following is not a theory to explain the origin of autoimmune diseases?

A. Sequestered antigen theory

 

B. Clonal selection theory

 

C. Theory of immune deficiency

 

D. Viral infection theory

 

E. All the choices are possible theories

 

49. What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity?

A. Host rejection of graft

 

B. Graft versus host disease

 

C. Formation of autoantibodies

 

D. Hypogammaglobulinemia

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

50. The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of

A. Autoantibodies

 

B. Delayed hypersensitivity

 

C. Congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland

 

D. Failure of B cell development and maturity

 

E. A genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

 

51. Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to

A. Autoantibodies

 

B. Delayed hypersensitivity

 

C. Congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland

 

D. Failure of B cell development and maturity

 

E. A genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

 

52. A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is

A. AIDS

 

B. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency

 

C. Digeorge syndrome

 

D. Agammaglobulinemia

 

E. SCID

 

53. Each of the following can result in acquired immune deficiencies except

A. Malnutrition

 

B. Stress

 

C. Pregnancy

 

D. Bacterial infection

 

E. Radiation treatment

 

54. In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE?

A. IgE

 

B. IgG

 

C. IgA

 

D. IgD

 

55. Degranulation of mast cells leads to:

A. Airway obstruction

 

B. Headache

 

C. Dilated blood vessels

 

D. All of these

 

 

True / False Questions

56. Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock and death.

True    False

 

57. Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives.

True    False

 

58. Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma.

True    False

 

59. A person who is Rh will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from early infancy.

True    False

 

60. The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection.

True    False

 

61. During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells.

True    False

 

62. The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol.

True    False

 

63. A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a recipient of another species.

True    False

 

64. Eczema is an autoimmune disorder.

True    False

 

65. A viral infection can cause Type I diabetes mellitus.

True    False

 

66. The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency.

True    False

 

67. AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells.

True    False

 

 

 

Chapter 016 Disorders in Immunity Key
 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are

A. Type I only

 

B. Type I and Type IV

 

C. Type IV only

 

D. Type I, Type II, Type III

 

E. Type I, Type II, Type III and Type IV

 

Learning Objective: 16.01 Name the two major categories of immune dysfunction.
Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the four types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

2. Which is mismatched?

A. Food allergy – Type I hypersensitivity

 

B. Poison ivy dermatitis – Type IV hypersensitivity

 

C. Serum sickness – Type III hypersensitivity

 

D. Transfusion reaction – Type II hypersensitivity

 

E. Hay fever – Type IV hypersensitivity

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the four types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

3. Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an

A. Autoimmune disease

 

B. Immunodeficiency

 

C. Hypersensitivity

 

D. Transfusion reaction

 

E. Desensitization

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the four types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

4. The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is

A. Humoralpathology

 

B. Hemopathology

 

C. Epidemiology

 

D. Immunopathology

 

E. Histopathology

 

Learning Objective: 16.01 Name the two major categories of immune dysfunction.
 

 

5. Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category

A. Type I only

 

B. Type I and Type IV

 

C. Type IV only

 

D. Type I, Type II, Type III

 

E. Type I, Type II, Type III and Type IV

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the four types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

6. Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?

A. Ingestant

 

B. Inhalant

 

C. Injectant

 

D. Contactant

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.03 Define allergen and distinguish among inhalant
Learning Objective: and contactant types.
Learning Objective: ingestant
 

 

7. Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?

A. Ingestant

 

B. Inhalant

 

C. Injectant

 

D. Contactant

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.03 Define allergen and distinguish among inhalant
Learning Objective: and contactant types.
Learning Objective: ingestant
 

 

8. The initial encounter with an allergen is called the

A. Sensitizing dose

 

B. Provocative dose

 

C. Allergic dose

 

D. Hypersensitivity dose

 

E. Desensitizing dose

 

Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens.
 

 

9. A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the

A. Sensitizing dose

 

B. Provocative dose

 

C. Allergic dose

 

D. Hypersensitivity dose

 

E. Desensitizing dose

 

Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens.
 

 

10. What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time?

A. Degranulation

 

B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

 

C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

 

D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle

 

E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

 

Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens.
 

 

11. Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?

A. Degranulation

 

B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

 

C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

 

D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle

 

E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

 

Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens.
 

 

12. Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?

A. Degranulation

 

B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

 

C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

 

D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle

 

E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

 

Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens.
 

 

13. Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity?

A. Rhinitis

 

B. Rashes

 

C. Sneezing

 

D. Diarrhea

 

E. Contact dermatitis

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the four types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

14. Histamine causes all the following except

A. Increased sensitivity to pain

 

B. Constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine

 

C. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle

 

D. Wheal and flare reaction in skin

 

E. Pruritis and headache

 

Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens.
 

 

15. The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is

A. Prostaglandin

 

B. Histamine

 

C. Leukotriene

 

D. Serotonin

 

E. Platelet-activating factor

 

Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens.
 

 

16. Which type(s) of hypersensitivities is IgG is involved with?

A. Anaphylaxis

 

B. Antibody mediated

 

C. Immune complex mediated

 

D. Both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated

 

E. Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated

 

Learning Objective: 16.01 Name the two categories of immune dysfunction.
 

 

17. Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a/an _____ hypersensitivity.

A. T-cell mediated

 

B. Antibody mediated

 

C. Immune complex mediated

 

D. Immediate

 

E. Both T-cell mediated and antibody mediated

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the four types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

18. Allergies run in families because

A. Immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus

 

B. Immunoglobulins pass through breast milk

 

C. The variable region of antibodies is genetically determined

 

D. Relative production of IgE is inherited

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.06 Briefly describe two methods for diagnosing allergies.
 

 

19. A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered

A. Delayed

 

B. T-cell mediated

 

C. Atopic

 

D. Antibody-mediated

 

E. Systemic anaphylactic

 

Learning Objective: 16.03 Define allergen and distinguish among inhalant
Learning Objective: ingestant and contactant types.
 

 

20. A systemicRemember,metimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is

A. Delayed

 

B. T-cell mediated

 

C. Atopic

 

D. Antibody-mediated

 

E. Systemic anaphylactic

 

Learning Objective: 16.05 Explain why systemic anaphylaxis is so serious.
 

 

21. A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is

A. Atopic dermatitis

 

B. Eczema

 

C. Allergic rhinitis

 

D. Asthma

 

E. Anaphylaxis

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the four types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

22. All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell mediated allergy except

A. Drug allergy

 

B. Eczema

 

C. Anaphylaxis

 

D. Allergic asthma

 

E. Systemic lupus erythematosus

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the four types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

23. Epinephrine

A. Is an antihistamine

 

B. Reverses constriction of airways

 

C. Causes desensitization

 

D. Inhibits the activity of lymphocytes

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.07 Discuss the mechanism of action of “allergy shots”.
 

 

24. Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing

A. Desensitization

 

B. Sensitization

 

C. Tissue matching

 

D. Degranulation

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.07 Discuss the mechanism of action of “allergy shots”.
 

 

25. An antihistamine will

A. Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes

 

B. Bind to histamine receptors on target organs

 

C. Block synthesis of Leukotrienes

 

D. Relieve inflammatory symptoms

 

E. Reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles

 

Learning Objective: 16.07 Discuss the mechanism of action of “allergy shots”.
 

 

26. Corticosteroids will

A. Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes

 

B. Bind to histamine receptors on target organs

 

C. Block synthesis of Leukotrienes

 

D. Relieve inflammatory symptoms

 

E. Reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles

 

Learning Objective: 16.07 Discuss the mechanism of action of “allergy shots”.
 

 

27. All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity except

A. IgM

 

B. IgG

 

C. IgE

 

D. Complement

 

E. Foreign cells

 

Learning Objective: 16.08 List the major immune system components involved in Type II hypersensitivity.
 

 

28. Human blood types involve all the following except

A. MHC genes

 

B. ABO antigen markers

 

C. Inheritance of two of three possible alleles

 

D. Genetically determined glycoprotein markers

 

E. Genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors

 

Learning Objective: 16.09 Explain the basis for the ABO blood groups
Learning Objective: and what type of antibody to the ABO antigens different individuals might have.
 

 

29. The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh will have which of the following?

A. Anti A, anti Rh

 

B. Anti B, anti Rh

 

C. Anti A

 

D. Anti B

 

E. Anti A, anti B, anti Rh

 

Learning Objective: 16.09 Explain the basis for the ABO blood groups
Learning Objective: and what type of antibody to the ABO antigens different individuals might have.
 

 

30. A person with O type blood

A. Lacks all the alleles for ABO blood type

 

B. Lacks A and B antigens

 

C. Could not have the Rh factor

 

D. Is called a universal recipient

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.09 Explain the basis for the ABO blood groups
Learning Objective: 16.10 Identify which blood types are considered universal donors and universal recipients.
Learning Objective: and what type of antibody to the ABO antigens different individuals might have.
 

 

31. A person who has anti A and anti B serum antibodies will have blood type

A. A

 

B. B

 

C. AB

 

D. O

 

E. Rh

 

Learning Objective: 16.09 Explain the basis for the ABO blood groups
Learning Objective: 16.10 Identify which blood types are considered universal donors and universal recipients.
Learning Objective: and what type of antibody to the ABO antigens different individuals…
 

 

32. Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause

A. Recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs

 

B. Fever and anemia

 

C. Systemic shock and kidney failure

 

D. Massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.09 Explain the basis for the ABO blood groups
Learning Objective: 16.10 Identify which blood types are considered universal donors and universal recipients.
Learning Objective: and what type of antibody to the ABO antigens different individuals…
 

 

33. A female who is Rh

A. Inherited two dominant genes

 

B. Is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status

 

C. Is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn

 

D. Can never have an Rh+ baby

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.11 Explain under what circumstances the Rh factor can be problematic for newborn babies.
 

 

34. The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when

A. Maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh fetus

 

B. Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh mother

 

C. Maternal Rh cells enter an Rh+ fetus

 

D. Fetal Rh cells enter an Rh+ mother

 

E. Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother

 

Learning Objective: 16.11 Explain under what circumstances the Rh factor can be problematic for newborn babies.
 

 

35. Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor

A. All other Rh+ fetuses are at risk

 

B. She can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn

 

C. She can never again have a low risk pregnancy

 

D. Only future Rh fetuses are at risk

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.11 Explain under what circumstances the Rh factor can be problematic for newborn babies.
 

 

36. Which of the following is not true of Type III hypersensitivity?

A. Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues

 

B. Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies

 

C. Involves an immune complex reaction

 

D. The Arthus reaction is a local response

 

E. Serum sickness is a systemic response

 

Learning Objective: 16.12 Specify how Type III hypersensitivity is similar to
Learning Objective: 16.13 Provide highlights about the Arthus reaction and serum sickness.
Learning Objective: Type II hypersensitivity.
Learning Objective: and also differs from
 

 

37. Which of the following is not a major organ that can be a target of immune complex deposition?

A. Blood vessels and skin

 

B. Heart and lungs

 

C. Brain

 

D. Joints

 

E. Kidneys

 

Learning Objective: 16.12 Specify how Type III hypersensitivity is similar to
Learning Objective: Type II hypersensitivity.
Learning Objective: and also differs from
 

 

38. Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in

A. Serum sickness

 

B. Delayed hypersensitivity

 

C. Anaphylaxis

 

D. Hemolytic disease of the newborn

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.12 Specify how Type III hypersensitivity is similar to
Learning Objective: 16.13 Provide highlights about the Arthus reaction and serum sickness
Learning Objective: Type II hypersensitivity.
Learning Objective: and also differs from
 

 

39. Contact dermatitis involves

A. A sensitizing and provocative dose

 

B. Allergen entering the skin

 

C. T lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines

 

D. Itchy papules and blisters

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.14 Describe the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis.
 

 

40. What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes?

A. Host rejection of graft

 

B. Graft versus host disease

 

C. Formation of autoantibodies

 

D. Hypogammaglobulinemia

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.15 Provide the names for 4 different sources of graft material.
 

 

41. Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a/an

A. Isograft

 

B. Autograft

 

C. Allograft

 

D. Xenograft

 

E. Hypograft

 

Learning Objective: 16.15 Provide the names for 4 different sources of graft material.
 

 

42. What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient’s tissue?

A. Skin graft

 

B. Blood transfusion

 

C. Organ transplantation

 

D. Both skin graft and organ transplantation

 

E. All of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.15 Provide the names for 4 different sources of graft material.
 

 

43. Autoimmunity is typically due to

A. Transfusion reaction

 

B. IgE and mast cells

 

C. Autoantibodies and T cells

 

D. Graft rejection

 

E. A deficiency in T-cell development

 

Learning Objective: 16.16 Name & describe at least 3 different theories of autoimmunity.
 

 

44. Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases except

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

 

B. Myasthenia gravis

 

C. Graves’ disease

 

D. Tuberculin reaction

 

E. Multiple sclerosis

 

Learning Objective: 16.16 Name & describe at least 3 different theories of autoimmunity.
Learning Objective: 16.17 Describe the pathogenesis of at least 3 autoimmune diseases.
 

 

45. Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus

 

B. Graves disease

 

C. Type I diabetes

 

D. Metastatic cancer

 

E. Rheumatic fever

 

Learning Objective: 16.16 Name & describe at least 3 different theories of autoimmunity. Learning objective: 16.17 Describe the pathogenesis of at least 3 autoimmune diseases.
 

 

46. Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against

A. Myelin sheath cells of the nervous system

 

B. Acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle

 

C. Acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle

 

D. Sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane

 

E. Cells in thyroid follicles

 

Learning Objective: 16.17 Describe the pathogenesis of at least 3 autoimmune diseases.
 

 

47. In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack

A. Myelin sheath cells of the nervous system

 

B. Acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle

 

C. Acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle

 

D. Sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane

 

E. Cells in thyroid follicles?

 

Learning Objective: 16.17 Describe the pathogenesis of at least 3 autoimmune diseases.
 

 

48. Which of the following is not a theory to explain the origin of autoimmune diseases?

A. Sequestered antigen theory

 

B. Clonal selection theory

 

C. Theory of immune deficiency

 

D. Viral infection theory

 

E. All the choices are possible theories

 

Learning Objective: 16.17 Describe the pathogenesis of at least 3 autoimmune diseases.
 

 

49. What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity?

A. Host rejection of graft

 

B. Graft versus host disease

 

C. Formation of autoantibodies

 

D. Hypogammaglobulinemia

 

E. None of the choices are correct

 

Learning Objective: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies.
 

 

50. The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of

A. Autoantibodies

 

B. Delayed hypersensitivity

 

C. Congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland

 

D. Failure of B cell development and maturity

 

E. A genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

 

Learning Objective: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies
 

 

51. Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to

A. Autoantibodies

 

B. Delayed hypersensitivity

 

C. Congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland

 

D. Failure of B cell development and maturity

 

E. A genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

 

Learning Objective: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies.
Learning Objective: 16.19 Explain what severe combined immunodeficiency is and discuss currently available therapeutic approaches.
 

 

52. A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is

A. AIDS

 

B. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency

 

C. Digeorge syndrome

 

D. Agammaglobulinemia

 

E. SCID

 

Learning Objective: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies.
Learning Objective: 16.20 Name three conditions that can cause secondary immunodeficiencies.
 

 

53. Each of the following can result in acquired immune deficiencies except

A. Malnutrition

 

B. Stress

 

C. Pregnancy

 

D. Bacterial infection

 

E. Radiation treatment

 

Learning Objective: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies.
Learning Objective: 16.20 Name three conditions that can cause secondary immunodeficiencies.
 

 

54. In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE?

A. IgE

 

B. IgG

 

C. IgA

 

D. IgD

 

Learning Objective: 16.07 Discuss the mechanism of action of “allergy shots”.
 

 

55. Degranulation of mast cells leads to:

A. Airway obstruction

 

B. Headache

 

C. Dilated blood vessels

 

D. All of these

 

Learning Objective: 16.05 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens.
 

 

True / False Questions

56. Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock and death.

TRUE

 

Learning Objective: 16.05 Explain why systemic anaphylaxis is so serious.
 

 

57. Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives.

TRUE

 

Learning Objective: 16.03 Identify 4 types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

58. Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma.

FALSE

 

Learning Objective: 16.03 Identify 4 types of overreaction to antigens.
 

 

59. A person who is Rh will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from early infancy.

FALSE

 

Learning Objective: 16.11 Explain under what circumstances the Rh factor can be problematic for newborn babies.
 

 

60. The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection.

FALSE

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the 4 types of overreaction to antigens.
Learning Objective: 16.03 Define allergen and distinguish among inhalant
Learning Objective: 16.14 Describe the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis.
Learning Objective: ingestant and contactant types.
 

 

61. During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells.

TRUE

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the 4 types of overreaction to antigens.
Learning Objective: 16.15 Provide the names for 4 different sources of graft material.
 

 

62. The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol.

TRUE

 

Learning Objective: 16.04 Define allergen and distinguish among inhalant
Learning Objective: ingestant and contactant types.
 

 

63. A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a recipient of another species.

TRUE

 

Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the 4 types of overreaction to antigens.
Learning Objective: 16.15 Provide the names for 4 different sources of graft material.
 

 

64. Eczema is an autoimmune disorder.

FALSE

 

Learning Objective: 16.17 Describe the pathogenesis of at least 3 autoimmune diseases.
 

 

65. A viral infection can cause Type I diabetes mellitus.

TRUE

 

Learning Objective: 16.17 Describe the pathogenesis of at least 3 autoimmune diseases.
 

 

66. The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency.

TRUE

 

Learning Objective: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies.
 

 

67. AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells.

TRUE

 

Learning Objective: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies.
Learning Objective: 16.20 Name three conditions that can cause secondary immunodeficiencies.
 

 

 

Chapter 016 Disorders in Immunity Summary

Category # of Questions
Learning Objective: 16.01 Name the two categories of immune dysfunction. 1
Learning Objective: 16.01 Name the two major categories of immune dysfunction. 2
Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the 4 types of overreaction to antigens. 3
Learning Objective: 16.02 Identify the four types of overreaction to antigens. 8
Learning Objective: 16.03 Define allergen and distinguish among inhalant 4
Learning Objective: 16.03 Identify 4 types of overreaction to antigens. 2
Learning Objective: 16.04 Define allergen and distinguish among inhalant 1
Learning Objective: 16.04 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens. 7
Learning Objective: 16.05 Describe the sequence of events after secondary exposures to allergens. 1
Learning Objective: 16.05 Explain why systemic anaphylaxis is so serious. 2
Learning Objective: 16.06 Briefly describe two methods for diagnosing allergies. 1
Learning Objective: 16.07 Discuss the mechanism of action of “allergy shots”. 5
Learning Objective: 16.08 List the major immune system components involved in Type II hypersensitivity. 1
Learning Objective: 16.09 Explain the basis for the ABO blood groups 5
Learning Objective: 16.10 Identify which blood types are considered universal donors and universal recipients. 3
Learning Objective: 16.11 Explain under what circumstances the Rh factor can be problematic for newborn babies. 4
Learning Objective: 16.12 Specify how Type III hypersensitivity is similar to 3
Learning Objective: 16.13 Provide highlights about the Arthus reaction and serum sickness 1
Learning Objective: 16.13 Provide highlights about the Arthus reaction and serum sickness. 1
Learning Objective: 16.14 Describe the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis. 2
Learning Objective: 16.15 Provide the names for 4 different sources of graft material. 5
Learning Objective: 16.16 Name & describe at least 3 different theories of autoimmunity. 2
Learning Objective: 16.16 Name & describe at least 3 different theories of autoimmunity. Learning objective: 16.17 Describe the pathogenesis of at least 3 autoimmune diseases. 1
Learning Objective: 16.17 Describe the pathogenesis of at least 3 autoimmune diseases. 6
Learning Objective: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies 1
Learning Objective: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies. 6
Learning Objective: 16.19 Explain what severe combined immunodeficiency is and discuss currently available therapeutic approaches. 1
Learning Objective: 16.20 Name three conditions that can cause secondary immunodeficiencies. 3
Learning Objective: and also differs from 3
Learning Objective: and contactant types. 2
Learning Objective: and what type of antibody to the ABO antigens different individuals might have. 3
Learning Objective: and what type of antibody to the ABO antigens different individuals… 2
Learning Objective: ingestant 2
Learning Objective: ingestant and contactant types. 3
Learning Objective: Type II hypersensitivity. 3

 

 

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