Sale!

Olds Maternal Newborn Nursing 9th Edition London Ladewig Test Bank

$80.00 $12.99

Olds Maternal Newborn Nursing 9th Edition London Ladewig Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0132109079

ISBN-10: 0132109077

 

Description

Olds Maternal Newborn Nursing 9th Edition London Ladewig Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0132109079

ISBN-10: 0132109077

 

 

 

Be the best nurse you can be:

Nursing test banks are legit and very helpful. This test bank on this page can be downloaded immediately after you checkout today.

Here is the definition of nursing

Its true that you will receive the entire legit test bank for this book and it can happen today regardless if its day or night. We have made the process automatic for you so that you don’t have to wait.

We encourage you to purchase from only a trustworthy provider:

Our site is one of the most confidential websites on the internet. We maintain no logs and guarantee it. Our website is also encrypted with an SSL on the entire website which will show on your browser with a lock symbol. This means not a single person can view any information.

, if you prefer a digital instead of a hardcover.

Have any comments or suggestions?

When you get your file today you will be able to open it on your device and start studying for your class right now.

Free Nursing Test Questions:

Davidson/London/Ladewig, Olds’ Maternal–Newborn Nursing and Women’s Health Across the Lifespan 9th Edition Test Bank
Chapter 11

Question 1

Type: MCMA

The nurse is explaining the difference between meiosis and mitosis. Which statements would be best?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

  1. Meiosis is the division of a cell into two exact copies of the original cell.
  2. Mitosis is splitting one cell into two, each with half the chromosomes of the original cell.
  3. Meiosis is the process by which gametes, or the sperm and ova, reproduce.
  4. Mitosis occurs in most of the cells of the body.
  5. Meiotic division leads to cells that halve the original genetic material.

Correct Answer: 3,5

Rationale 1: Meiosis creates two cells that have half of the chromosomes of the original cell.

Rationale 2: Mitosis creates two cells that are exact copies of the original cell.

Rationale 3: Both sperm and ova are created through meiosis.

Rationale 4: Mitosis is how the majority of cells reproduceRemember, that the new cells have the same structure and function as the original.

Rationale 5: Meiosis creates two cells that have half of the chromosomes of the original cell.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 2

Type: MCSA

The nurse is preparing a class on reproduction. The cell division process that results in two identical cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell, is called:

  1. Meiosis.
  2. Mitosis.
  3. Oogenesis.
  4. Gametogenesis.

Correct Answer: 2

Rationale 1: Meiosis is a process of cell division that leads to the development of eggs and sperm.

Rationale 2: Mitosis is the process of cell division that results in two identical cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.

Rationale 3: Oogenesis is the process by which female gametes, or ova, are produced.

Rationale 4: Gametogenesis is the process by which germ cells are produced.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 3

Type: MCSA

The nurse educator is discussing human chromosomes with her students, and knows that the teaching has been effective when a student states:

  1. “All humans have 48 chromosomes and 2 sex chromosomes.”
  2. “Human chromosomes are shaped like a ‘Y’.”
  3. “Humans have 46 chromosomes, 2 of which are the sex chromosomes.”
  4. “Only certain body cells contain the chromosomes.”

Correct Answer: 3

Rationale 1: Humans have 46 chromosomes, not 48.

Rationale 2: Human chromosomes are shaped like an ‘X.’

Rationale 3: This is the correct answer. There are 22 pairs of similar cells and 2 sex chromosomes.

Rationale 4: All body cells contain chromosomes.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 4

Type: MCMA

The nurse is teaching about reproduction, and explains that the purposes of meiosis are to:

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected.

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

  1. Produce gametes.
  2. Reduce the number of chromosomes.
  3. Introduce genetic variability.
  4. Produce cells for tissue repair.
  5. Divide somatic cells into new cells with identical characteristics.

Correct Answer: 1,2,3

Rationale 1: In the production of reproductive cells (gametes), there is a reduction of chromosome numbers by half (from diploid [46] to haploid [23])Remember, that when fertilization occurs, the normal diploid number is restored. This introduces genetic variability.

Rationale 2: In the production of reproductive cells (gametes), there is a reduction of chromosome number by half (from diploid [46] to haploid [23])Remember, that when fertilization occurs, the normal diploid number is restored. This introduces genetic variability.

Rationale 3: In the Production of reproductive cells (gametes), there is a reduction of chromosome number by half (from diploid [46] to haploid [23])Remember, that when fertilization occurs, the normal diploid number is restored. This introduces genetic variability.

Rationale 4: The purpose of mitosis is to produce cells for growth and tissue repair. Cell division is characteristic of all somatic cells.

Rationale 5: The purpose of mitosis is cell division to create cells having the characteristics of all somatic cells.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 5

Type: MCSA

The nurse has completed a presentation on reproduction. Which statement indicates that the teaching has been successful?

  1. “A male is born with all the sperm he will ever produce.”
  2. “Females create new ova throughout their reproductive life.”
  3. “Ova separate into two unequally sized cells.”
  4. “Each primary spermatocyte divides into four haploid cells.”

Correct Answer: 3

Rationale 1: Males begin spermatogenesis at puberty, and it continues throughout their life.

Rationale 2: Females are born with all the ova they will ever produce. The ova begin to be formed in early fetal life.

Rationale 3: Each ovum undergoes meiotic division just prior to being released from the graafian follicle. Each cell created by this meiosis has the same number of chromosomes, but the cytoplasm does not split equally.

Rationale 4: Primary spermatocytes contain 46 chromosomes (46XY). Each primary spermatocyte undergoes meiotic division into two haploid secondary spermatocytes (22X or 22Y). Haploid cells each contain half of the genetic material of the original cell.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Evaluation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 6

Type: MCSA

During a class on genetics for pregnant families, the nurse is discussing the how the egg and sperm are formed before fertilization takes place. The nurse explains that these cells have only half the number of chromosomesRemember, when fertilization takes place, there will be the correct number. The process by which the egg and sperm are formed is called:

  1. Oogenesis.
  2. Gametogenesis.
  3. Meiosis.
  4. Spermatogenesis.

Correct Answer: 2

Rationale 1: Oogenesis is the process that produces the ovum.

Rationale 2: Gametogenesis is the process by which ovum and sperm are produced.

Rationale 3: Meiosis is a special type of cell division.

Rationale 4: Spermatogenesis is the process that produces the sperm.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Teaching and Learning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 7

Type: MCSA

After explaining how meiotic division occurs within the ovum, the nurse knows that the pregnant patient understands when she states:

  1. “The second meiotic division is arrested until and unless the oocyte is fertilized.”
  2. “Meiosis in the oocyte begins at puberty.”
  3. “The first meiotic division continues when the female infant is born.”
  4. “Fertilization does not take place in the secondary oocyte.”

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: This is true. The second meiotic division is arrested unless fertilization takes place.

Rationale 2: Meiosis begins before the baby is born, but stops before the first division is complete, and remains in this arrested phase until puberty.

Rationale 3: The first meiotic division stops before the first division is complete, and remains in this arrested phase until puberty.

Rationale 4: The secondary oocyte is where fertilization will take place.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Teaching and Learning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 8

Type: MCSA

The nurse is teaching the students in their obstetric rotation about fertilization. For fertilization to occur, what portion of the sperm must enter the ovum?

  1. The entire sperm
  2. Only the head
  3. Only the tail
  4. Either the head or the tail

Correct Answer: 2

Rationale 1: The entire sperm does not have to enter the ova.

Rationale 2: Only the head of the sperm enters the ovum in a twofold process known as capacitation and acrosomal reaction.

Rationale 3: The tail of the sperm does not have to enter the ovum in order to fertilize it.

Rationale 4: The tail of the sperm does not have to enter the ovum in order to fertilize it.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 9

Type: MCSA

In evaluating information taught about conception and fetal development, the patient verbalizes understanding about transportation time of the zygote through the fallopian tube and into the cavity of the uterus with which statement?

  1. “It will take at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus.”
  2. “It will take 8 days for the egg to reach the uterus.”
  3. “It will only take 12 hours for the egg to go through the fallopian tube.”
  4. “It will take 18 hours for the fertilized egg to implant in the uterus.”

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: “It will take at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus” is the correct statement.

Rationale 2: It does not take 8 days for the egg to reach the uterus.

Rationale 3: It does not take only 12 hours for the egg to go through the fallopian tube.

Rationale 4: It will does not take 18 hours for the egg to go through the fallopian tube.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Evaluation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 10

Type: MCSA

The nurse explains to a preconception class that if only a small volume of sperm is discharged into the vagina, an insufficient quantity of enzymes might be released when they encounter the ovum. In that case, pregnancy would probably not result, because:

  1. Peristalsis of the fallopian tube would decrease, making it difficult for the ovum to enter the uterus.
  2. The block to polyspermy (cortical reaction) would not occur.
  3. The fertilized ovum would be unable to implant in the uterus.
  4. Sperm would be unable to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum.

Correct Answer: 4

Rationale 1: Peristalsis of the fallopian tube is not a factor in this stage of fertilization.

Rationale 2: A block to polyspermy would indicate that the ovum had already been penetrated by a fertilizing sperm, which would occur later in the fertilization process.

Rationale 3: The ovum has not yet been fertilized in this example.

Rationale 4: It takes hundreds of acrosomes (the result of the acrosomal reaction) to rupture and release enough hyaluronic acid to clear the way for a single sperm to penetrate the ovum’s zona pellucida successfully. If only a small amount of sperm were released, there most likely would be an insufficient quantity of acrosomes to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum and allow fertilization.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 11

Type: MCSA

The nurse is creating a handout on reproduction for teen patients. Which piece of information should the nurse include in this handout?

  1. The fertilized ovum is called a gamete.
  2. Prior to fertilization, the sperm are zygotes.
  3. Ova survive 12–24 hours in the fallopian tube if not fertilized.
  4. Sperm survive in the female reproductive tract up to a week.

Correct Answer: 3

Rationale 1: Ova and sperm are gametes; a fertilized ovum is a zygote.

Rationale 2: Sperm are gametes (as are ova); a zygote is a fertilized ovum.

Rationale 3: Ova are fertile for about 12–24 hours after being released from the graafian follicle.

Rationale 4: Sperm survive 48–72 hours in the female reproductive tract, but are healthy and highly fertile for 24 hours.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 12

Type: MCSA

A pregnant woman tells the nurse–midwife, “I’ve heard that if I eat certain foods during my pregnancy, the baby will be a boy.” The nurse–midwife’s response should explain that this is a myth, and that the sex of the baby is determined at the time of:

  1. Ejaculation.
  2. Fertilization.
  3. Implantation.
  4. Differentiation.

Correct Answer: 2

Rationale 1: Ejaculation is the release of sperm from the male, and does not necessarily cause a pregnancy.

Rationale 2: Fertilization is the point at which the sex of the zygote is determined.

Rationale 3: Implantation is when the fertilized ovum is implanted in the uterine endometrium. The sex of the zygote has already been determined at this stage.

Rationale 4: Differentiation refers to a cell division process.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 13

Type: HOTSPOT

In learning about the chromosomes, the student nurse will identify the heterozygous chromosomes as:

Standard Text: Click on the correct area on the image.

Correct Answer:

Rationale : This picture shows one pair of homologous chromosomes with similar (homozygous) genes (the top pair) and dissimilar (heterozygous) genes (the bottom pair) Each homologous chromosome pair carries genes coding for similar traits in identical locations on the chromosomes. Genes that are similar are called homozygous genes, whereas dissimilar genes are referred to as heterozygous genes.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 14

Type: MCMA

The nurse is teaching a group of adolescents that sperm must undergo the process of capacitation in order to fertilize the ova. The characteristics of sperm that have undergone capacitation include the:

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected.

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

  1. Ability to undergo an acrosomal reaction.
  2. Ability to block polyspermy.
  3. Ability to bind to the zona pellucida.
  4. Ability to release the protease acrosin.
  5. Acquisition of hypermotility.

Correct Answer: 1,3,5

Rationale 1: Sperm that undergo capacitation take on the ability to undergo the acrosomal reaction.

Rationale 2: At the moment of penetration by a fertilizing sperm, the zona pellucida undergoes a reaction that prevents additional sperm from entering a single ovum. This is known as the block to polyspermy.

Rationale 3: Sperm that undergo capacitation take on the ability to bind to the zona pellucida.

Rationale 4: null

Rationale 5: Sperm that undergo capcitation have the acquisition of hypermotility.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 15

Type: MCMA

Student nurses in their obstetrical rotation are learning about fertilization and implantation. The process of implantation is characterized by which statements?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

  1. The trophoblast attaches itself to the surface of the endometrium.
  2. The most frequent site of attachment is the lower part of the anterior uterine wall.
  3. Between days 7 and 10, the zona pellucida disappears, and the blastocyst implants itself in the uterine lining.
  4. The lining of the uterus thins below the implanted blastocyst.
  5. The cells of the trophoblast grow down into the uterine lining, forming the chorionic villi.

Correct Answer: 1,3,5

Rationale 1: During implantation, the trophoblast attaches itself to the surface of the endometrium, between days 7 and 10.

Rationale 2: The most frequent site of attachment is not the lower part of the anterior wall.

Rationale 3: Between days 7 and 10, the zona pellucida disappears, and the blastocyst implants itself in the thickened uterine lining.

Rationale 4: The lining of the uterus thickens, not thins.

Rationale 5: The cells of the trophoblast grow down into the thickened lining, forming the chorionic villi.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 16

Type: MCSA

The nurse is creating a poster for pregnant mothers. Which description of fetal development should the nurse include?

  1. Four primary germ layers form from the blastocyst.
  2. After fertilization, the cells only become larger for several weeks.
  3. Most organs are formed by 8 weeks after fertilization.
  4. The embryonic stage is from fertilization until 5 months.

Correct Answer: 3

Rationale 1: Three primary germ layers form from the blastocyst: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.

Rationale 2: After fertilization, the cells reproduce by mitosis, resulting in more cells, not larger cells.

Rationale 3: Most organs are formed during the embryonic stage, which lasts from the 15th day after fertilization until the end of the 8th week after fertilization.

Rationale 4: The embryonic stage ends before the fifth month.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 17

Type: MCSA

The nurse working with a patient describes cellular multiplication and how the zygote moves through the fallopian tube, a movement that takes place via:

  1. A squeezing motion.
  2. Pushing from another ovum that has not been fertilized.
  3. Hormone action.
  4. A very weak fluid current in the fallopian tube resulting from the beating action of ciliated epithelium.

Correct Answer: 4

Rationale 1: There is no squeezing motion.

Rationale 2: This does not happen.

Rationale 3: There are no hormones involved with this process.

Rationale 4: This correct. There is a very weak fluid current in the fallopian tube resulting from the beating action of the ciliated epithelium that lines the tube.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Teaching and Learning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 18

Type: MCSA

A patient tells you that her mother was a twin, two of her sisters have twins, and several cousins either are twins or gave birth to twins. The patient, too, is expecting twins. Because there is a genetic predisposition to twins in her family, there is a good chance that the patient will have:

  1. Dizygotic twins.
  2. Monozygotic twins.
  3. Identical twins.
  4. Nonzygotic twins.

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: A familial history of twins usually results in dizygotic (fraternal) twins, or twins that result from two separate ova.

Rationale 2: Monozygotic twins, known also as identical twins, are not familial.

Rationale 3: Identical twins, known also as monozygotic twins, are not familial.

Rationale 4: Nonzygotic twins do not exist.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 19

Type: MCSA

The nurse is caring for a patient pregnant with twins. Which statement indicates that the patient needs additional information?

  1. “Because both of my twins are boys, I know that they are identical.”
  2. “If my twins came from one fertilized egg that split, they are identical.”
  3. “If I have one boy and one girl, I will know they came from two eggs.”
  4. “It is rare for both twins to be within the same amniotic sac.”

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: Not all same-sex twins are identical or monozygotic, because fraternal, or dizygotic, twins can be the same gender or different genders.

Rationale 2: When the zygote splits, identical twins share the same genotype result.

Rationale 3: The only way to have twins of different genders is if they come from two separate fertilized ova.

Rationale 4: Monoamniotic–monochorionic twins are very rare, and occur as a result of the zygote splitting 7 or more days after fertilization.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Evaluation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 20

Type: MCSA

Which statement to the nurse by a pregnant patient would indicate that the patient understood the teaching?

  1. “Because of their birth relationship, fraternal twins are more similar to each other than if they had been born singly.”
  2. “Identical twins can be the same or different sex.”
  3. “Congenital abnormalities are more prevalent in identical twins.”
  4. “Identical twins occur more frequently than fraternal twins.”

Correct Answer: 3

Rationale 1: Fraternal twins are not more similar to each other than if they had been born singly.

Rationale 2: Identical or monozygotic twins have identical chromosomal structures, and, therefore, are always the same sex.

Rationale 3: Due to variations in the timing of the splitting of the embryo, congenital abnormalities such as conjoining are more common in monozygotic twins.

Rationale 4: Dizygotic, or fraternal, twins occur more frequently than do monozygotic twins.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Evaluation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 21

Type: MCSA

A woman pregnant with twins asks the nurse about differences between identical and fraternal twins. The nurse explains that since it has been determined that she is having a boy and a girl, they are fraternal, and there will be:

  1. One placenta, two amnions, and two chorions.
  2. Two placentas, two amnions, and two chorions.
  3. Two placentas, one amnion, and two chorions.
  4. Two placentas, two amnions, one chorion.

Correct Answer: 2

Rationale 1: Fraternal twins do not have one placenta, two amnions, and two chorions.

Rationale 2: This is the correct answer. Fraternal twins have two placentas, two amnions, and two chorions. There are always two placentas, but sometimes they will fuse together.

Rationale 3: Fraternal twins do not have two placentas, one amnion, and two chorions.

Rationale 4: Fraternal twins do not have two placentas, two amnions, and one chorion.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 22

Type: MCMA

The nurse educator is teaching student nurses what a fetus will look like at various weeks of development. Which descriptions would be typical of a fetus at 20 weeks’ gestation?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

  1. The fetus has a body weight of 435–465 g.
  2. The fetus actively sucks and swallows amniotic fluid.
  3. The kidneys begin to produce urine.
  4. Nipples appear over the mammary glands.
  5. Lanugo covers the entire body.

Correct Answer: 1,2,4,5

Rationale 1: A fetus at 20 weeks’ gestation has a body weight of 435–465 g.

Rationale 2: A fetus at 20 weeks’ gestation can actively suck and swallow amniotic fluid.

Rationale 3: Kidneys begin to produce urine between 9 and 12 weeks’ gestation.

Rationale 4: A fetus at 20 weeks’ gestation has nipples that appear over the mammary glands.

Rationale 5: A fetus at 20 weeks’ gestation has lanugo that covers the entire body.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 23

Type: MCSA

The nurse is working with a patient who has experienced a fetal death in utero at 20 weeks. The patient asks what her baby will look like when it is delivered. Which statement by the nurse is best?

  1. “Your baby will be covered in fine hair called lanugo.”
  2. “Your child will have arm and leg buds, not fully formed limbs.”
  3. “A white, cheesy substance called vernix caseosa will be on the skin.”
  4. “The genitals of the baby will be ambiguous.”

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: Downy fine hair called lanugo covers a 20-week fetus.

Rationale 2: Limb buds have developed by 35 days post-fertilization.

Rationale 3: Vernix caseosa forms at about 24 weeks.

Rationale 4: The genitals are apparent by 12 weeks after fertilization. This fetus would have had specifically male or female genitals 8 weeks ago.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 24

Type: MCSA

The nurse is presenting a class to pregnant patients. The nurse asks, “The fetal brain is developing rapidly, and the nervous system is complete enough to provide some regulation of body function on its own, at which fetal development stage?” It is clear that education has been effective when a participant responds:

  1. “The 17th–20th week.”
  2. “The 25th–28th week.”
  3. “The 29th–32nd week.”
  4. “The 33rd–36th week.”

Correct Answer: 2

Rationale 1: The nervous system function is not developed between the 17th and 20th weeks of gestation.

Rationale 2: Nervous system function that is complex enough to provide body function regulation occurs around the 25th–28th week, which is when a fetus has a good chance of survival if born.

Rationale 3: The complexity of the nervous system develops long before the 29th–32nd week.

Rationale 4: The complexity of the nervous system develops long before the 33rd–36th week.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Evaluation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 25

Type: MCSA

The pregnant patient who is at 14 weeks’ gestation asks the nurse why the doctor used to call her baby an embryo, and now calls it a fetus. What is the best answer to this question?

  1. “A fetus is the term used from the ninth week of gestation and onward.”
  2. “We call a baby a fetus when it is larger than an embryo.”
  3. “An embryo is a baby from conception until the eighth week.”
  4. “The official term for a baby in utero is really zygote.”

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: The fetal stage begins in the ninth week.

Rationale 2: The embryonic stage ends with the eighth week, regardless of size.

Rationale 3: The pre-embryonic stage is from conception until day 15.

Rationale 4: A zygote is a fertilized ovum.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 26

Type: MCSA

At her first prenatal visit, a woman is discussing fetal development with the nurse. The patient asks, “When will my baby actually have a heartbeat?” The nurse should reply, “The heartbeat of an embryo is distinguishable by:

  1. “The fourth week.”
  2. “The sixth week.”
  3. “The eighth week.”
  4. “The twelfth week.”

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: The tubular heart beats at a regular rhythm and pushes its own primitive blood cells through the main blood vessels in the fourth week of fetal development.

Rationale 2: The heartbeat of an embryo is distinguishable before the sixth week of development.

Rationale 3: The heartbeat of an embryo is distinguishable before the eighth week of development.

Rationale 4: The heartbeat of an embryo is distinguishable before the 12th week of development.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 27

Type: MCMA

A pregnant patient at 28 weeks’ gestation asks the nurse what her baby is like at this stage of pregnancy. The nurse responds that the baby:

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected.

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

  1. Is laying down subcutaneous fat.
  2. Is now opening and closing her eyes.
  3. Could now breathe on her own.
  4. Has fingernails and toenails.
  5. Is forming surfactant needed for lung function.

Correct Answer: 2,3,5

Rationale 1: Subcutaneous fat does not develop until the 32nd week.

Rationale 2: At 28 weeks, the eyes begin to open and close.

Rationale 3: At 28 weeks, the baby can breathe. Surfactant needed for breathing at birth is formed.

Rationale 4: Fingernails and toenails do not form until the 32nd week of gestation.

Rationale 5: At 28 weeks, the baby has the surfactant formed needed for breathing.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 28

Type: MCMA

The nurse is holding a class for newly pregnant couples, and discussing good and bad influences on their baby. Prenatal influences on the intrauterine environment include which of the following?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

  1. The use of saunas or hot tubs
  2. The use of drugs
  3. The quality of the sperm or ovum
  4. Maternal nutrition
  5. Vitamins and folic acid

Correct Answer: 1,2,4,5

Rationale 1: The use of saunas or hot tubs is associated with maternal hyperthermia, and can cause CNS defects and failure of neural tube closure.

Rationale 2: The use of drugs can have teratogenic effects.

Rationale 3: The quality of the sperm or ovum will affect embryonic development but not necessarily affect the intrauterine environment.

Rationale 4: Maternal nutrition, if deficient, can cause damage to the fetus.

Rationale 5: Vitamins and folic acid taken prior to and during the pregnancy can have beneficial effects.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Safe Effective Care Environment

Client Need Sub: Management of Care

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 29

Type: MCSA

The patient at 18 weeks’ gestation thinks she might have been exposed to a toxin at work that could affect fetal development. The patient asks the nurse what organs might be affected at this point in pregnancy. The best response by the nurse is:

  1. “The brain is developing now, and could be affected.”
  2. “Because you are in the second trimester, there is no danger.”
  3. “The internal organs like the heart and lungs could be impacted.”
  4. “It’s best to not worry about possible problems with your baby.”

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: Maximum brain growth and myelination are occurring at this point in fetal development.

Rationale 2: The fetus at 20 weeks’ gestation is still vulnerable to exposure to certain toxins.

Rationale 3: The heart, lungs, and other internal organs form during the embryonic state, or the first 8 weeks of pregnancy.

Rationale 4: Avoid telling patients to not worry. Doing so indicates to the patient that you don’t care about their concerns, and will end effective communication.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 30

Type: MCSA

The nurse educator is presenting a program to college students about factors that can cause congenital malformations. She will tell them that:

  1. The most damage is done to the fetus when insult occurs during the second trimester of pregnancy.
  2. Spontaneous abortion always occurs if the fetus is affected by a toxin.
  3. The fetus is most vulnerable to toxic agents during the first months of pregnancy.
  4. Toxic substances are primarily drugs.

Correct Answer: 3

Rationale 1: This is not true. More malformations occur when the insult occurs at another stage of pregnancy.

Rationale 2: Spontaneous abortion occurs sometimes when the fetus is affected by a toxin, but not always.

Rationale 3: The first months of pregnancy are the most vulnerable time for the fetus. Malformations usually can be traced back to development within the first few weeks.

Rationale 4: Toxic agents include drugs, viruses, environmental toxins, and radiation.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Safe Effective Care Environment

Client Need Sub: Safety and Infection Control

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Teaching and Learning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 31

Type: MCMA

The nurse is teaching the significance of good nutrition on fetal development to a group of young women. Factors discussed will include:

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected.

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

  1. Vitamins and folic acid are important before conception.
  2. A high-fat diet is essential to fetal development.
  3. Glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids are of high importance.
  4. Nutrition is important only during the first trimester.
  5. Complex carbohydrates and proteins are the only essential nutrients needed for fetal development.

Correct Answer: 1,3

Rationale 1: Vitamins and folic acid supplements taken before conception can reduce the incidence of neural tube defects.

Rationale 2: A high-fat diet during pregnancy is not recommended.

Rationale 3: Amino acids, glucose, and fatty acids are considered to be the primary dietary factors in brain growth.

Rationale 4: Nutrition is important before, during, and after the pregnancy.

Rationale 5: Complex carbohydrates and proteins are important, but are not the only nutrients needed.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 32

Type: MCSA

During a prenatal examination, an adolescent patient asks, “How does my baby get air?” The nurse would give correct information by saying:

  1. “The lungs of the fetus carry out respiratory gas exchange in utero similar to what an adult experiences.”
  2. “The placenta assumes the function of the fetal lungs by supplying oxygen and allowing the excretion of carbon dioxide into your bloodstream.”
  3. “The blood from the placenta is carried through the umbilical artery, which penetrates the abdominal wall of the fetus.”
  4. “The fetus is able to obtain sufficient oxygen due to the fact that your hemoglobin concentration is 50% greater during pregnancy.”

Correct Answer: 2

Rationale 1: Most of the blood supply bypasses the fetal lungs, since they do not carry out respiratory gas exchange.

Rationale 2: The placenta assumes the function of the fetal lungs by supplying oxygen and allowing the excretion of carbon dioxide into the maternal bloodstream.

Rationale 3: The blood from the placenta is carried through the umbilical vein, not the umbilical artery.

Rationale 4: Fetal hemoglobin facilitates obtaining oxygen from the maternal circulation because it carries as much as 20% to 30% more oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 33

Type: MCSA

The patient has read that the placenta produces hormones that are vital to the function of the fetus. It is evident that that the patient understands the function of the placenta when she states, “The hormone primarily responsible for the maintenance of pregnancy past the 11th week is:

  1. “Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).”
  2. “Human placental lactogen (hPL).”
  3. “Estrogen.”
  4. “Progesterone.”

Correct Answer: 4

Rationale 1: Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) begins to decrease as placental hormone production increases. It is not primarily responsible for maintenance of pregnancy past the 11th week.

Rationale 2: Human placental lactogen (hPL) stimulates certain changes in the mother’s metabolic processes, but it is not primarily responsible for maintenance of pregnancy past the 11th week.

Rationale 3: Estrogen that is secreted by the placenta is in the form of estriol, and cannot be synthesized by the placenta alone. It is not primarily responsible for maintenance of pregnancy past the 11h week.

Rationale 4: Progesterone is primarily responsible for maintenance of pregnancy past the 11th week because it decreases the contractility of the uterus, thus preventing uterine contractions from causing spontaneous abortion.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Evaluation

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 34

Type: MCSA

The nurse teaching the expectant parents about the placenta also talks about the circulation and how the fetus gets its oxygen. She will include in this teaching which important fact?

  1. The placenta functions as the lungs for the fetus.
  2. The fetus obtains its oxygen from the amniotic fluid.
  3. The fetus receives its oxygen by osmosis from the mother’s bloodstream.
  4. Fetal circulation delivers the highest amount of oxygen to the abdomen and lower body of the fetus.

Correct Answer: 1

Rationale 1: The placenta functions as the lungs for the fetus. Most of the blood supply bypasses the fetal lungs until baby takes its first breath.

Rationale 2: The fetus does not obtain its oxygen from the amniotic fluid.

Rationale 3: The fetus receives its oxygen from the mother by diffusion.

Rationale 4: The highest amount of circulation is to the head and upper body.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Teaching and Learning

Learning Outcome:

 

Question 35

Type: MCMA

The OB-GYN nurse teaches a first-time pregnant patient that functions of the amniotic fluid include:

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected.

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

  1. Allowing fetal freedom of movement.
  2. Releasing heat to control fetal temperature.
  3. Acting as an extension of fetal extracellular space.
  4. Providing a water source for the fetus to swallow.
  5. Acting as a wedge during labor.

Correct Answer: 1,3,5

Rationale 1: A primary function of amniotic fluid is to prevent adherence of the embryo–fetus to the amnion (decreasing the chance of amniotic band syndrome) to allow freedom of movement.

Rationale 2: A primary function of amniotic fluid is to control fetal temperature, but it is the heat released from the mother that keeps the amniotic fluid warm and the fetal temperature normal.

Rationale 3: A primary function of amniotic fluid is to act as an extension of fetal extracellular space.

Rationale 4: Although the fetus will swallow amniotic fluid, it is not dependent upon the amniotic fluid for water intake.

Rationale 5: A primary function of amniotic fluid is to act as a wedge during labor.

Global Rationale:

 

Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Client Need Sub:

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation

Learning Outcome:

 

Reviews

There are no reviews yet.

Be the first to review “Olds Maternal Newborn Nursing 9th Edition London Ladewig Test Bank”

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *