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Primary Care Art and Science 3rd Edition Dunphy Porter Test Bank

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Primary Care Art and Science 3rd Edition Dunphy Porter Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0803622555

ISBN-10: 0803622554

Description

Primary Care Art and Science 3rd Edition Dunphy Porter Test Bank

ISBN-13: 978-0803622555

ISBN-10: 0803622554

 

 

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Free Nursing Test Questions:

 

Chapter 19

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____     1.   Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9oF, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?

a. Heat cramps c. Heat exhaustion
b. Heat syncope d. Heat stroke

 

 

____     2.   What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?

a. 9% c. 24%
b. 18% d. 36%

 

 

____     3.   Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?

a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen) c. Silver nitrate
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

 

 

____     4.   A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

a. 4 c. 10
b. 8 d. 15

 

 

____     5.   Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure

 

 

____     6.   What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale?

a. 7 c. 10
b. 9 d. 15

 

 

____     7.   Which diagnostic test is the best to diagnose a subdural hematoma (SDH)?

a. History
b. Positron emission tomography (PET)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Computed tomography (CT) scan

 

 

____     8.   Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?

a. 10% c. 30%
b. 20% d. 50%

 

 

____     9.   Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

 

 

____   10.   Which method is used to remove heavy metals such as lead which are ingested as poisons?

a. Chelation c. Gastric lavage
b. Dialysis d. Bowel irrigation

 

 

____   11.   If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.

 

 

____   12.   What percentage of all visits to the emergency department (ED) are related to wounds?

a. 5% c. 18%
b. 12% d. 24%

 

 

____   13.   Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?

a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution
b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
d. Saline irrigation or soapy water

 

 

____   14.   Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

a. Superficial burns c. Deep partial-thickness burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns d. Full-thickness burns

 

 

____   15.   Which carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) level correlates with the clinical symptoms of confusion, lethargy, and ST-segment depression on the ECG?

a. Less than 10 percent c. 30% COHb
b. 20% COHb d. 40% to 60% COHb

 

 

____   16.   Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?

a. Dogs c. Humans
b. Cats d. Rodents

 

 

____   17.   Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and hemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?

a. Tick c. Wasp
b. Brown recluse spider d. Stinging caterpillar

 

 

____   18.   Which of the following characteristics separates anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction?

a. Bradycardia c. Severe bronchoconstriction
b. Extreme diaphoresis d. Hypotension

 

 

____   19.   Delayed serum sickness–type reactions in response to multiple bee, wasp, or fire ant stings can be managed with which of the following?

a. A corticosteroid such as prednisone (Deltasone) 60 to 100 mg, tapered over 2 weeks
b. An oral antihistamine such as hydroxyzine for 2 weeks
c. An H2 blocker such as cimetidine for 1 week
d. 0.1 mg (1 mL of 1:10,000 solution epinephrine) in 10 mL of normal saline (NS) and administer as a slow IV push over 10 minutes

 

 

____   20.   After a head injury, what is it called when air enters into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)–filled spaces within the head?

a. Pneumocephalus c. Battle’s sign
b. Hemotympanum d. Raccoon sign

 

 

____   21.   Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may leak through the cribiform plate region of the skull following a head injury causing which of the following?

a. Ear CSF otorrhea c. Nasal CSF rhinorrhea
b. Leakage of CSF from the eye d. Leakage of CSF from the mouth

 

 

____   22.   Which classic feature of an epidural hematoma may distinguish it from other skull hematomas?

a. Unilateral hemiparesis
b. Loss of speech
c. Temporary hearing loss
d. A brief loss of consciousness, then a brief “lucid” moment, followed by a momentary unconsciousness occuring minutes after the injury

 

 

____   23.   A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?

a. CN II c. CN IV
b. CN III d. CN V

 

 

____   24.   A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?

a. A sprain c. A partial fracture
b. A strain d. A fracture

 

 

____   25.   In a healthy adult, the process of remodeling after a fracture of the humerus takes how long?

a. Approximately 4 weeks c. 3 months
b. 2 months d. 4 months

 

Chapter 19

Answer Section

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

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